CMA Certification Test Prep: Pharmacology Focus

Introduction to Pharmacology for Certified Medical Assistants

Pharmacology represents one of the most critical and frequently tested areas within the Clinical Competency domain of the CMA (AAMA) certification exam, comprising a significant portion of the 59% of questions dedicated to clinical skills. As a certified medical assistant, your understanding of pharmacology directly impacts patient safety and quality of care in medical office settings. This knowledge encompasses drug classifications, routes of administration, dosage calculations, medication safety protocols, and the ability to recognize potential adverse effects and drug interactions. Medical assistants must be proficient in medication management as they often assist physicians with prescription processes, patient education about medications, and monitoring for therapeutic responses. The pharmacology questions on the CMA exam test both theoretical knowledge and practical application scenarios that medical assistants encounter daily. Understanding proper medication storage, handling controlled substances according to DEA regulations, and maintaining accurate medication records are essential competencies. Additionally, medical assistants must be able to perform dosage calculations accurately, understand different routes of drug administration, and recognize contraindications for specific patient populations. The integration of pharmacology knowledge with patient care makes this topic area particularly high-yield for exam success. Mastery of pharmacological principles not only ensures exam success but also establishes the foundation for safe, effective patient care throughout your medical assisting career.

Practice Questions: Pharmacology for Medical Assistants

Question 1: Which route of medication administration has the fastest onset of action?
A) Oral (PO)
B) Intramuscular (IM)
C) Subcutaneous (SubQ)
D) Intravenous (IV)

Question 2: A patient is prescribed 250 mg of amoxicillin three times daily. How many mg will the patient take in 24 hours?
A) 500 mg
B) 750 mg
C) 1000 mg
D) 1250 mg

Question 3: Which drug classification is used primarily to treat hypertension?
A) Antibiotics
B) Antihypertensives
C) Antihistamines
D) Analgesics

Question 4: What is the most important action before administering any medication?
A) Document the administration immediately
B) Verify the patient’s identity using two identifiers
C) Check the patient’s insurance coverage
D) Ensure the patient has eaten recently

Question 5: Which medication requires special storage in a locked cabinet due to DEA regulations?
A) Aspirin
B) Insulin
C) Morphine sulfate
D) Acetaminophen

Question 6: A prescription reads “Take 1 tablet BID for 10 days.” How many tablets should be dispensed?
A) 10 tablets
B) 20 tablets
C) 30 tablets
D) 40 tablets

Question 7: Which side effect is most commonly associated with opioid pain medications?
A) Hypertension
B) Constipation
C) Hair loss
D) Weight gain

Question 8: The “right dose” is one of the “Five Rights” of medication administration. What does this specifically refer to?
A) The correct strength of medication
B) The correct number of pills
C) The correct time interval
D) The correct patient diagnosis

Question 9: Which type of insulin has the longest duration of action?
A) Regular insulin
B) NPH insulin
C) Insulin glargine (Lantus)
D) Insulin lispro (Humalog)

Question 10: A patient reports taking warfarin (Coumadin). Which over-the-counter medication should they avoid?
A) Acetaminophen (Tylenol)
B) Aspirin
C) Calcium supplements
D) Vitamin D

Question 11: What does the abbreviation “PRN” mean on a prescription?
A) Prior to noon
B) As needed
C) After meals
D) Before bedtime

Question 12: Which medication form bypasses the digestive system?
A) Capsules
B) Tablets
C) Transdermal patches
D) Liquid suspensions

Question 13: A patient is prescribed 0.25 mg of digoxin. The available tablets are 125 mcg. How many tablets should be given?
A) 1 tablet
B) 2 tablets
C) 0.5 tablet
D) 4 tablets

Question 14: Which drug classification would be prescribed for a patient with a bacterial infection?
A) Antifungals
B) Antivirals
C) Antibiotics
D) Antihistamines

Question 15: What is the primary concern when a patient is prescribed both an ACE inhibitor and a potassium supplement?
A) Decreased effectiveness of the ACE inhibitor
B) Hyperkalemia (elevated potassium levels)
C) Increased blood pressure
D) Reduced kidney function

Answer Key and Explanations

Answer 1: D – Intravenous administration provides immediate drug delivery into the bloodstream, resulting in the fastest onset of action.

Answer 2: B – 250 mg × 3 times daily = 750 mg total daily dose.

Answer 3: B – Antihypertensives are specifically designed to lower blood pressure and treat hypertension.

Answer 4: B – Patient identification using two identifiers is the critical first step to prevent medication errors.

Answer 5: C – Morphine sulfate is a controlled substance (Schedule II) requiring secure, locked storage per DEA regulations.

Answer 6: B – BID means twice daily; 1 tablet × 2 times × 10 days = 20 tablets total.

Answer 7: B – Constipation is the most common side effect of opioid medications due to decreased GI motility.

Answer 8: A – The “right dose” refers to administering the correct strength or amount of medication as prescribed.

Answer 9: C – Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin with a duration of approximately 24 hours.

Answer 10: B – Aspirin increases bleeding risk when combined with warfarin, an anticoagulant medication.

Answer 11: B – PRN is Latin for “pro re nata,” meaning “as needed” or when required.

Answer 12: C – Transdermal patches deliver medication through the skin, bypassing the digestive system entirely.

Answer 13: B – 0.25 mg = 250 mcg; 250 mcg ÷ 125 mcg per tablet = 2 tablets.

Answer 14: C – Antibiotics are the appropriate drug classification for treating bacterial infections.

Answer 15: B – ACE inhibitors can increase potassium levels, and combining with potassium supplements may cause dangerous hyperkalemia.