Infection control and safety represent one of the most critical competency areas for Certified Medical Assistants, comprising a significant portion of the clinical competency section that accounts for 59% of the CMA examination. As healthcare-associated infections affect millions of patients annually and contribute to increased morbidity, mortality, and healthcare costs, medical assistants serve as frontline defenders in breaking the chain of infection transmission within healthcare facilities. This topic area encompasses essential knowledge of standard precautions, transmission-based precautions, proper use of personal protective equipment (PPE), hand hygiene protocols, safe handling and disposal of contaminated materials, and emergency response procedures for exposure incidents. Medical assistants must demonstrate proficiency in identifying infectious agents, understanding modes of transmission, implementing appropriate isolation measures, and maintaining aseptic technique during patient care activities. The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard and Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines form the regulatory foundation for these practices, making compliance knowledge essential for both exam success and professional practice. Mastery of infection control principles directly impacts patient safety outcomes, protects healthcare workers from occupational exposures, and ensures regulatory compliance in healthcare settings. Understanding the hierarchy of controls—from engineering controls and work practice controls to personal protective equipment—enables medical assistants to make informed decisions about infection prevention strategies in various clinical scenarios. The integration of infection control knowledge with clinical skills, such as specimen collection, wound care, and medication administration, demonstrates the interconnected nature of safe patient care practices. Given the evolving landscape of healthcare-associated infections, including multidrug-resistant organisms and emerging pathogens, medical assistants must maintain current knowledge of evidence-based infection prevention practices throughout their careers.
Practice Questions
Question 1
Which of the following is the correct order for donning personal protective equipment (PPE)?
A) Gloves, gown, mask, eye protection
B) Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves
C) Mask, gown, gloves, eye protection
D) Eye protection, mask, gown, gloves
Correct Answer: B) Gown, mask, eye protection, gloves
Explanation: The proper sequence for donning PPE is gown first, then mask, followed by eye protection, and finally gloves. This sequence prevents contamination of clean PPE with potentially contaminated hands or clothing.
Question 2
Standard precautions should be used:
A) Only with patients who have known infectious diseases
B) Only during surgical procedures
C) With all patients, regardless of their diagnosis
D) Only when handling blood products
Correct Answer: C) With all patients, regardless of their diagnosis
Explanation: Standard precautions are infection control practices designed to prevent transmission of diseases and should be applied to the care of all patients in all healthcare settings, regardless of suspected or confirmed infection status.
Question 3
Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with tuberculosis?
A) Contact precautions
B) Droplet precautions
C) Airborne precautions
D) Standard precautions only
Correct Answer: C) Airborne precautions
Explanation: Tuberculosis is transmitted through airborne particles that can remain suspended in air for extended periods. Airborne precautions require the use of N95 respirators and negative pressure rooms.
Question 4
The most effective method for hand hygiene in healthcare settings is:
A) Alcohol-based hand sanitizer for 10 seconds
B) Soap and water for at least 20 seconds
C) Either alcohol-based sanitizer (15 seconds) or soap and water (20 seconds)
D) Antibacterial wipes for 30 seconds
Correct Answer: C) Either alcohol-based sanitizer (15 seconds) or soap and water (20 seconds)
Explanation: Both alcohol-based hand sanitizers (when hands are not visibly soiled) and soap and water are effective for hand hygiene when used for the appropriate duration. Soap and water must be used when hands are visibly soiled.
Question 5
Which of the following items should be disposed of in a red biohazard bag?
A) Empty medication bottles
B) Used gauze with dried blood
C) Paper towels from hand washing
D) Disposable thermometer covers
Correct Answer: B) Used gauze with dried blood
Explanation: Items contaminated with blood or other potentially infectious materials must be disposed of in red biohazard bags. This includes gauze, bandages, or other materials with blood, regardless of whether it’s wet or dried.
Question 6
When should gloves be changed during patient care?
A) Only at the end of patient contact
B) Every 30 minutes during extended procedures
C) Between different procedures on the same patient
D) Only if they become visibly soiled
Correct Answer: C) Between different procedures on the same patient
Explanation: Gloves should be changed between different procedures on the same patient to prevent cross-contamination between body sites, and certainly between different patients.
Question 7
The chain of infection includes all of the following EXCEPT:
A) Infectious agent
B) Reservoir
C) Susceptible host
D) Sterilization equipment
Correct Answer: D) Sterilization equipment
Explanation: The chain of infection consists of six links: infectious agent, reservoir, portal of exit, mode of transmission, portal of entry, and susceptible host. Sterilization equipment is a control measure, not part of the chain.
Question 8
Which disinfectant level is required for semicritical medical devices?
A) Low-level disinfection
B) Intermediate-level disinfection
C) High-level disinfection
D) Sterilization only
Correct Answer: C) High-level disinfection
Explanation: Semicritical items (those that contact mucous membranes or non-intact skin) require high-level disinfection, which kills all microorganisms except large numbers of bacterial spores.
Question 9
A needlestick injury occurs. What is the first immediate action?
A) Report to the supervisor
B) Wash the wound with soap and water
C) Apply pressure to stop bleeding
D) Get tested for bloodborne pathogens
Correct Answer: B) Wash the wound with soap and water
Explanation: The immediate first aid for a needlestick injury is to wash the wound thoroughly with soap and water. This should be done immediately, followed by reporting and seeking medical evaluation.
Question 10
Contact precautions are indicated for patients with:
A) Influenza
B) Measles
C) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
D) Tuberculosis
Correct Answer: C) Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA)
Explanation: MRSA requires contact precautions because it spreads through direct contact with the patient or contaminated surfaces. Influenza requires droplet precautions, measles requires airborne precautions, and tuberculosis requires airborne precautions.
Question 11
The proper angle for disposing of sharps in a sharps container is:
A) Drop from any angle
B) Insert needle first at a 45-degree angle
C) Insert needle first straight down
D) Break the needle before disposal
Correct Answer: C) Insert needle first straight down
Explanation: Sharps should be disposed of immediately after use by inserting them needle-first straight down into an approved sharps container. Never break, bend, or recap needles before disposal.
Question 12
Which of the following best describes medical asepsis?
A) Complete elimination of all microorganisms
B) Reduction of microorganisms to prevent infection
C) Use of sterile technique for all procedures
D) Isolation of infectious patients only
Correct Answer: B) Reduction of microorganisms to prevent infection
Explanation: Medical asepsis (clean technique) involves practices that reduce the number and transmission of microorganisms. This differs from surgical asepsis (sterile technique), which eliminates all microorganisms.
Question 13
When cleaning a blood spill, the recommended bleach solution concentration is:
A) 1:5 dilution (1 part bleach to 5 parts water)
B) 1:10 dilution (1 part bleach to 10 parts water)
C) 1:50 dilution (1 part bleach to 50 parts water)
D) 1:100 dilution (1 part bleach to 100 parts water)
Correct Answer: B) 1:10 dilution (1 part bleach to 10 parts water)
Explanation: A 1:10 bleach solution is the standard concentration recommended for cleaning blood spills and other potentially infectious materials. This provides effective disinfection while being safe to use.
Question 14
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires:
A) Annual training for all healthcare workers
B) Hepatitis B vaccination for at-risk employees
C) Use of engineering controls to reduce exposure
D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D) All of the above
Explanation: OSHA’s Bloodborne Pathogens Standard requires annual training, hepatitis B vaccination (offered at no cost to employees), and implementation of engineering controls, work practice controls, and PPE to minimize exposure.
Question 15
Which statement about N95 respirators is correct?
A) They can be reused indefinitely if not visibly soiled
B) They must be fit-tested annually for each user
C) They provide protection against all airborne pathogens
D) They can be shared between healthcare workers of similar size
Correct Answer: B) They must be fit-tested annually for each user
Explanation: N95 respirators must be fit-tested at least annually and whenever there are changes that could affect the fit (weight change, facial hair, etc.). They are single-use items and should never be shared between users.
This practice test is designed to help you prepare for the CMA certification exam. Focus on understanding the rationale behind each answer to build comprehensive knowledge of infection control and safety principles.